Answer:
yes they are.
Step-by-step explanation:
let f(x)=y then , x = f inverse of y
3x-1=y
x=(y+1)/3
f inverse of y = (y+1)/3
f inverse of x =(x+1)/3
and that is equal to g(x).
hence
yes they are.
Step-by-step explanation:
let f(x)=y then , x = f inverse of y
3x-1=y
x=(y+1)/3
f inverse of y = (y+1)/3
f inverse of x =(x+1)/3
and that is equal to g(x).
hence proved